Call forwarding question.

Archived from groups: alt.cellular.verizon (More info?)

Sorry if this gets covered periodically, but different answers from CS make
me ask the question here.

A friend has excellent service everywhere but home, where she often misses
calls. She wants to call-forward to her home landline when she is at home,
but I cautioned her she may get double-billed for each minute----one minute
for the call received by the cellphone number, plus one for the forwarding
call to the landline. She says she was told she would only be billed one
minute for each minute used. Which is correct?........and also, how would
"mobile-to-mobile" be treated here?

Example A: My mobile - to her mobile - forwarded to her landline. In this
example:

My mobile - to her mobile - is a mobile/mobile call, so neither of us gets
billed for that part. However, she gets billed one minute for the
"her-mobile-to-her-landline" part of the call. Correct? or not?

Example B: My landline - to her mobile - forwarded to her landline. Her
mobile gets billed two minutes for each minute of conversation. Correct? or
not?


Thanks!!
Dean

Archived from groups: alt.cellular.verizon (More info?)

On Fri, 15 Jul 2005 01:31:46 GMT, "Dean" <dean173@yahoo.com> wrote:

>Sorry if this gets covered periodically, but different answers from CS make
>me ask the question here.

Only recently, and we've still not come to a conclusive answer.

>
>A friend has excellent service everywhere but home, where she often misses
>calls. She wants to call-forward to her home landline when she is at home,
>but I cautioned her she may get double-billed for each minute----one minute
>for the call received by the cellphone number, plus one for the forwarding
>call to the landline. She says she was told she would only be billed one
>minute for each minute used. Which is correct?........

I've never heard of being "double billed" for minutes. It *was* my
understanding that when you forward calls to another number, you got
billed for the minutes of each forwarded call. But, that has not been
my personal experience. I have a friend who is long distance to my
home, but local to my cell (which is also local to my home). So I
forward my cell to my home, he calls my cell, and we talk landline to
landline, courtesy of VZW. So far, I have not been billed for *ANY*
minutes of use this way. In fairness, I've only been able to try it
during off-peak hours (which are unlimited for me), so it may be
different during peak hours. I'll know for sure when we get a chance
to test it during peak hours.

>and also, how would
>"mobile-to-mobile" be treated here?
>
>Example A: My mobile - to her mobile - forwarded to her landline. In this
>example:
>
>My mobile - to her mobile - is a mobile/mobile call, so neither of us gets
>billed for that part. However, she gets billed one minute for the
>"her-mobile-to-her-landline" part of the call. Correct? or not?

Under the situation I described above, it wouldn't matter. But under
my past understanding, since the originating phone called a VZW
number, it would fall under M2M. And since the receiving mobile got a
call from a VZW phone, it would be M2M, too. But, the mobile to
landline forward wouldn't be M2M, and should be charged for each
minute of use. But as I said, my experiences tell me that no billing
is being done for any forwarding, at least in this market (upstate SC)
or on my account. I would suggest a test call or two using your
scenarios and make sure how it is billed before using it regularly
this way.

>Example B: My landline - to her mobile - forwarded to her landline. Her
>mobile gets billed two minutes for each minute of conversation. Correct? or
>not?

Not. I cannot think of a scenario that would cause double minutes to
be billed, short of forwarding from mobile to mobile, then forwarding
the second mobile to another line (double forwarding). But those
minutes would come from different lines.